2013년 10월 31일 목요일

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시험 번호/코드: 3103
시험 이름: Avaya (Radvision Scopia Solution for Video Communications Exam)
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Q&A: 42 문항
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NO.1 Which activity cannot be performed by an MCU operator?
A. MCU configuration
B. Managing another conference
C. Viewing the conference list
D. Disconnecting a conference
Answer: B

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NO.2 What is the maximum High Definition (HD) resolution supported by the Elite MCU?
A. 480P
B. 720P
C. 1080i
D. 1080P
Answer: D

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NO.3 What connectivity method(s) are available for H.323 clients to dial-in into the PathFinder
server?
A. PathFinder Client and H.460 support only.
B. Either PathFinder Client and H.460, or PathFinder Client and H.323 DirectPublicAccesssupport.
C. PathFinderClient,H.460 support, and H.323 Direct Public Access support.
D. PathFinderClient only.
Answer: C

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NO.4 In which slot can you insert the Master Blade in the Scopia® Elite 5000 series 3U chassis?
A. the bottomslot
B. any slot except the top slot
C. any slot
D. only thetop slot
Answer: D

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NO.5 How can you limit the default call bandwidth for a specific user in a deployment that includes
the
iVIEW Management Suite?
A. Limitingthe bandwidth can be done only through the end-points.
B. The default call bandwidth can belimited as part ofthe terminal configuration set.
C. After the call is connected, limit the bandwidth through the meeting controlscreen.
D. Limitingthe bandwidth cannot be done for a specific user.
Answer: C

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NO.6 What is the maximum High Definition (HD) resolution supported by SCOPIA XT Desktop?
A. 448P
B. 720P
C. 1080i
D. 1080P
Answer: D

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시험 번호/코드: RDCR08301
시험 이름: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional - Crystal Reports 2008 - Level Two)
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NO.1 How can you verify that the data displayed on a report from a database is correct by using the Show
SQL Query option?
A.Copy and run the query into the native database client utility.
B.Copy the query into the Crystal SQL command.
C.Copy and run the query into the Database Expert.
D.Copy the query into SQL+.
Answer:A

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NO.2 You want to ensure that your Accounts Receivable listing report displays only those customers with
invoices. Which join type must you specify when you link the Customer and Invoice tables using the
Customer ID field?
A.Enforced Both Join
B.Equal Join
C.Inner Join
D.Full Inner Join
Answer:C

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NO.3 Your test report contains the following record selection formula: {Customer.Region} = "CA" OR
DateTimeToDate ({Orders.Order Date}) > Date (2004,01,01) What is displayed when you select "Show
SQL Query? from the Database menu?
A.An SQL statement or WHERE clause
B.No SQL statement or WHERE clause
C.A server error message
D.A record selection error message
Answer:B

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NO.4 You create a Crystal report that shows customer names and locations. You use a linked subreport to
display details of the orders placed so far this year by each customer. Each customer's total purchases for
last year are calculated and stored in the main report and retrieved by the subreport. The subreport must
calculate the percentage increase or decrease in orders received this year as compared to each
customer's purchases made last year. Which formula should you use to accomplish this?
A.Shared currencyVar cLYS; (Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}) ?cLYS)/cLYS;
B.Shared currencyVar cLYS (Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}) ?cLYS)/ Sum ({Orders.Order Amount});
C.Global currencyVar cLYS (Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}) ?cLYS)/cLYS;
D.currencyVar cLYS; (cLYS - Sum ({Orders.Order Amount}))/ Sum ({Orders.Order Amount});
Answer:A

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NO.5 Which menu will allow you to import a new XML transform?
A.Report Export Options
B.Manage XML Exporting Formats
C.Manage XML Importing Formats
D.Report Import Options
Answer:B

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NO.6 In which pass do shared variables get processed?
A.Pre-pass 2
B.Pass 1
C.Pass 3
D.Pass 2
E.Pre-pass 3
Answer:D

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NO.7 You design a Crystal report for the Sales department. It lists customer orders received year-to-date
and is grouped and subtotaled monthly by order date. It contains the selection formula: Sum
({Orders.Order Amount}, {Orders.Order Date}, "monthly") > $200000. What is the highest stage of
processing that this report requires?
A.Pass 2
B.Pre-pass 3
C.Pass 1
D.Pre-pass 2
E.Pass 3
Answer:A

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NO.8 You run a report and the report returns an error that fields are missing. Which feature can you use to
determine if the database structure has changed?
A.Verify Database
B.Record Selection Formula
C.Check Dependencies
D.Show SQL Query
Answer:A

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NO.9 You must create a new Crystal report that displays the top 25% of customer sales leaders. Which
method will sort the report alphabetically by customer, not by the sales summary?
A.Use a standard Top N report.
B.Use subreports with shared variables to calculate the percentage summaries then sort the results.
C.Use multiple arrays in a single report to summarize and sort the data.
D.Use a dynamic array with subreports to create the Top N summaries then sort the data correctly.
Answer:D

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NO.10 You want to calculate summaries on a different dataset than the main report. The summaries must be
calculated before the main report data is returned. These summaries must display once in the main report.
Which task should you perform to create the report?
A.Insert an unlinked subreport in the report header.
B.Insert an unlinked subreport in the group header.
C.Insert a linked subreport in the group header.
D.Insert a linked subreport in the report footer.
Answer:A

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NO.11 Scheduling a report and sending sub-sets of data to different users dependent on the security is called:
A.Report bursting
B.Report exporting
C.Report publishing
D.Report scheduling
Answer:A

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NO.12 Sales Managers use a weekly sales report that includes the following columns: Sales Person, Weekly
Sales and Quota. The Sales Managers would like the ability to retrieve additional non-sales related
information on their personnel by clicking on a hyperlink. Which type of report should you create?
A.Unlinked subreport based on manager ID
B.Unlinked subreport based on employee ID
C.Linked On-Demand subreport based on employee ID
D.On-Demand subreport based on manager ID
Answer:C

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NO.13 Which two statements are true when you create a shared variable in a main report and pass the
variable to an On-Demand subreport? (Choose two.)
A.The main report passes the variable as a local variable.
B.The shared variable is not available for use in the subreport.
C.The shared variable is available for use in the subreport.
D.The main report must calculate the shared variable before it is available in the subreport.
E.The shared variable is calculated in the subreport.
Answer:C D

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NO.14 Which three conditions might cause an error when you save a custom function? (Choose three.)
A.You used a local variable.
B.You used a summary field.
C.You used a User Function Library (UFL).
D.You used a Print State function.
Answer:B C D

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NO.15 Which action should you perform to update a report to reflect a change to the database structure?
A.From the Database Menu, select Set Datasource Location.
B.From the Database Menu, select Verify Database.
C.From the Report Menu, select Refresh Report Data.
D.From the Report Menu, select Check Dependencies.
Answer:B

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NO.16 Which two methods can you use to save an unlinked subreport as a stand alone report? (Choose two.)
A.In the Preview pane, right-click the subreport and select Save Subreport As
B.In the Design tab, right-click the subreport and select Save Subreport As
C.In the Subreport Preview tab, from the File menu, select Save Report As
D.In the main report, from the File menu, select Save Report As
Answer:A B

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NO.17 You create the following formula in a new Crystal report: Local NumberVar Array b; Redim b[10]; Local
NumberVar i; For i := 1 To 10 Do ( b[i] := 7 * i ); What is the correct value of b[2]?
A.14
B.140
C.70
D.7
Answer:A

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NO.18 Which three statements describe characteristics of a subreport? (Choose three.)
A.Can be inserted in any section of a primary report
B.Can contain subreports
C.Can have its own record selection
D.Does not contain a Page Header or Page Footer section
Answer:A C D

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NO.19 You add a custom function from the repository to a new Crystal report and want to categorize the
function. What must you do to enable the Category box?
A.Edit the custom function.
B.Disconnect the function from the repository.
C.Re-add the function to the repository.
D.Save the custom function to the report.
Answer:B

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NO.20 You use two different ODBC DSNs that assign different data types (numeric in one data source and
string in the second data source). Which three solutions can you use to link the different data types?
(Choose three.)
A.Use an OLAP cube.
B.Use a command object.
C.Use a linked subreport.
D.Use a stored procedure.
Answer:B C D

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NO.21 The sales manager would like a sales report of last year's sales summarized first by country and then by
last year's sales summarized by sales person. Which method should you use to create the report?
A.Create a report grouped by country and add a subreport in the Report Footer grouped by sales person.
B.Create a report grouped by sales person and add a subreport in Group Header grouped by country.
C.Create a report grouped by sales person and add a subreport in the Report Footer grouped by country.
D.Create a report grouped by country and add a subreport in the Report Header grouped by sales person.
Answer:A

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NO.22 The world sales report is being sent to all regional managers. Three of the managers cover multiple
regions. You need to configure report bursting so that these managers see all of their regions. Which of
the following is true?
A.The Dynamic Recipient Data Provider should be sorted by recipient ID.
B.The Dynamic Recipient Data Provider should be sorted by region ID.
C.It is not possible to include more than one region per manager in the report.
D.No action is required as the Dynamic Recipient Data Provider will automatically sort as necessary.
Answer:A

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NO.23 How can you reduce processing time for a Crystal report?
A.Sort records on the client
B.Perform query asynchronously
C.Perform grouping on the server
D.Verify data on first refresh
Answer:C

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NO.24 Which two evaluation time functions can you use in a formula which contains a manual running total?
(Choose two.)
A.BeforeReadingRecords
B.EvaluateAfter
C.WhileReadingRecords
D.WhilePrintingRecords
Answer:B D

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NO.25 You create a Crystal report containing basic employee contact information including an employee
photo in a primary report. Occasionally your manager must view information on an employee's
educational background, employment history or training. You decide to use On-Demand subreports to
supply the additional data. Which action retrieves the data from the database?
A.Saving the report with data
B.Selecting the subreport design tab
C.Clicking the subreport hyperlink
D.Opening the main report the first time
Answer:C

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NO.26 What must you do when unmapped report fields appear in the Map Fields dialog box?
A.Map the fields required for the report.
B.Map all required fields to subreport links.
C.Run the Dependency Checker.
D.Map fields to global variables.
Answer:A

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NO.27 You need to hyperlink to a customer's company name. Which syntax should you use to create the
hyperlink?
A.//"http://"+currentfieldvalue+".com"
B."http://www"+currentfieldvalue+".com"
C.//"http://www"+currentfieldvalue+".com"
D."http://www"+currentfieldvalue+"com"
Answer:B

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NO.28 What is an acceptable file type for the imported XML transform?
A.XML
B.XSL
C.VTD
D.STX
Answer:B

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NO.29 Which is the earliest evaluation time function you can use in a formula which does not use any
database fields or summaries?
A.WhilePrintingRecords
B.BeforeReadingRecords
C.EvaluateAfter
D.WhileReadingRecords
Answer:B

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NO.30 You want to design a weekly sales report that contains a list of all products sold during the week in the
Report Header. Which type of array would you use to handle the data?
A.Dynamic
B.Standard
C.Adaptive
D.Passive
Answer:A

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시험 번호/코드: SABE501V
시험 이름: Business-Objects (Business Objects Certified Professional - Business Objects Enterprise XI 3.0 – Update)
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NO.1 What do you see when you view a Crystal Report instance that has both saved data and two
successful instances?
A. The latest data from the database
B. The oldest data from the database
C. The oldest successful instance
D. The newest successful instance
Answer: D

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NO.2 Which three are benefits to the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA).? (Choose three.)
A. Security
B. Administrative accessibility
C. Email notification
D. Reliability
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.3 Four users in the Human Resources department and six users in the Finance department need to edit
existing Web Intelligence documents. How would you set-up a secure folder structure for the different
departments so that each group of users can edit existing Web Intelligence documents?
A. Modify advanced rights on all groups.
B. Apply a predefined access level to all folders.
C. Create a custom access level and apply it to all folders.
D. Modify advanced rights on a top level folder.
Answer: C

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NO.4 How do you set-up a configuration template for a Web Intelligence Processing Server?
A. Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to the Server Template area and click on Add
New Template.
B. Go to the Central Configuration Manager (CCM), then go to properties of the specific server and click
on Add New Template.
C. Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to the Server Template area and click on Set
Configuration Template.
D. Go to the Central Management Console (CMC), then go to properties of the specific server and click
on Set Configuration Template.
Answer: D

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NO.5 Which type of file does the replication process use to transfer content?
A. BIAR
B. REP
C. Binary
D. BOMain
Answer: A

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NO.6 Which directory is the bootstrap file saved in by default on the Windows platform?
A. Web Services
B. Logging
C. FileStore
D. Win32_x86
Answer: D

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NO.7 Which web language was used to develop InfoView?
A. Perl
B. Java
C. PHP
D. C++
Answer: B

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NO.8 Which three application servers can you deploy Web Archive (WAR) files to using wdeploy? (Choose
three.)
A. Oracle Containers for J2EE
B. SAPNetweaver
C. JRun
D. Sun Java Application Server
Answer: A,B,D

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NO.9 Where are the properties for the Event Server stored?
A. In the boot.ini file on the machine where the Event Server is running
B. In the Central Management Server (CMS) system database
C. In the Server Intelligence Agent (SIA) bootstrap file
D. In the Event Server service properties
Answer: B

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NO.10 Which replication object would you schedule?
A. Replication Job
B. Replication List
C. Replication Connection
D. Replication Package
Answer: A

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시험 이름: Altiris (Altiris Deployment Solution Foundation 6.8)
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NO.1 Deployment Solution's Simple Install Helper will check for and install which required third-party
software? (Choose two.)
A. Java
B. DirectX
C. ActiveX
D. .NET framework
E. Pre-boot automation operating systems
F. SQL
Answer: DF

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NO.2 Which program lets you edit image files after they have been created?
A. ImgViewer
B. ImageExplorer
C. ImageEditor
D. ImageManager
E. ImgManager
Answer: B

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NO.3 Which statement about deploying computer image files is true?
A. The RDeploy switch used to preserve existing partitions is enabled by default.
B. Aborting the deployment process (after imaging as started) corrupts the destination computer's hard
drive.
C. The maximum space required on the destination hard drive is equal to the size of the image file.
D. The imaging process is non-destructive, and adds data to what is already stored on an existing hard
drive partition.
Answer: B

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NO.4 You are using the Deployment Console's New Job Wizard to migrate a computer's personality from
one computer to different computer.
What happens to the names of these two computers during this process?
A. The destination computer is automatically given a new unique name.
B. The source computer is automatically renamed and the destination computer gets the original name of
the source computer.
C. The two computers will end up with identical names, therefore you must rename one of the computers
manually.
Answer: B

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NO.5 AClient has not been password protected.
Which three tasks can be performed after right-clicking on the AClient icon from a managed computer?
(Choose three.)
A. initiate Microsoft's Sysprep Utility in preparation for imaging
B. view the AClient log file when log files have been enabled
C. change the name of the managed computer as it appears in the Deployment Console
D. change the NetBIOS name of the managed computer
E. monitor AClient's communication with the Deployment Server
F. reinstall AClient
G. edit the AClient template file
Answer: BCE

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NO.6 You have deployed a hardware independent image to an ACPI Uniprocessor computer and now the
computer will not start.
What is the probable cause?
A. the wrong hardware abstraction layer (HAL) was deployed
B. Sysprep was not run on the source computer
C. the ACPI Uniprocessor computer does not support hardware independent images
D. a clean Windows installation was not performed on the source computer before creating the hardware
independent image.
Answer: A

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NO.7 While imaging computers, Deployment Solution supports the use of UNDI drivers.
Which UNDI driver statements are true? (Choose two.)
A. UNDI drivers are written specifically to work with the Altiris automation process.
B. UNDI drivers must be downloaded and installed from Intel's Web site before they can be used.
C. UNDI drivers let you image computers without obtaining a specific manufacturer's network driver for
each network card.
D. UNDI drivers do not support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
E. UNDI drivers support multicasting of hard disk images across the entire network.
Answer: CD

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NO.8 AClient has been installed on your Windows XP managed computers.
Which three methods can be used to change the settings AClient is currently using? (Choose three.)
A. from the Deployment Console, right-click on the computer and select Change Agent Settings
B. from the Deployment Console, select Tools > AClient > Configurations
C. from the managed computer, select Start > All Programs > Altiris > AClient > Configuration
D. from the managed computer, double-click the AClient icon located in the system tray and select
Properties
E. from the Deployment Console, double-click on a computer and edit the client properties
F. use the Deployment Console to reinstall AClient with the desired settings
Answer: ADF

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NO.9 When using the DOS operating system, image files with an .EXE file extension _____?
A. cannot be deployed using a Deployment job
B. must be converted to .IMG before they can be deployed with a Deployment job
C. cannot be converted to .IMG files
D. can be deployed without using additional Altiris imaging software
Answer: D

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NO.10 Which Deployment Console method lets you work with software virtualization layers?
A. using a Deployment job
B. selecting Tools > Software Virtualization
C. right-clicking on a computer and selecting Software Virtualization > Manage Layers
Answer: A

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NO.11 Which required symbol identifies the opening and closing of a Deployment token?
A. %
B. #
C. $
D. *
Answer: A

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NO.12 Which Altiris utility creates the necessary media to run the Initial Deployment job from a CD?
A. ImageExplorer
B. RapiDeploy
C. PXE Configuration Utility
D. Initial Deployment Configuration Utility
E. Boot Disk Creator
Answer: E

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NO.13 When using Altiris PXE servers in a Deployment System, which PXE statement is true?
A. Multiple PXE servers can only be installed if a router separates them.
B. If a PXE server is configured to delay its response, it will respond only if no other PXE server responds
immediately.
C. A managed computer only uses the first PXE server it hears from.
D. Configuring multiple PXE servers to respond immediately causes errors on the managed computers.
Answer: C

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NO.14 Deployment Agents (such as AClient) can be installed on remote computers using the Remote Agent
Installer, but only when the remote computers are running which four operating systems? (Choose four.)
A. Windows 2000
B. Windows 95
C. Windows NT
D. Windows XP
E. Windows 2003
F. Linux
G. Windows 98
Answer: ACDE

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NO.15 Which utility removes the security ID (SID) before making an image of a computer?
A. SIDgenerator
B. SetupCapture
C. Sysprep
D. ImageExplorer
E. SIDconfig
Answer: C

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NO.16 When capturing a computer's personality, the application settings used for this process are located in
which file type?
A. .INI
B. .A2I
C. .ASI
D. .PBT
Answer: B

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NO.17 Which Deployment Solution component stores the main Deployment System program files?
A. Deployment Server
B. Deployment Database
C. Deployment Share
D. Microsoft DHCP Server
E. Deployment PXE Server
F. Deployment Console
Answer: C

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NO.18 You can use _____ to ensure that your PXE servers are servicing the correct managed computers.
A. IP blocking
B. Conditions
C. MAC filtering
D. NetBIOS name recognition
Answer: C

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NO.19 How does a Deployment Solution job let you work with software virtualization layers? (Choose two.)
A. layers can be imported to a managed computer
B. layers can be created
C. the state of a layer can be managed (activated, deactivated, and so forth)
D. the content of a layer can be modified
Answer: AC

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NO.20 AClient (on a managed computer) has been configured to use a multicast packet to locate the
Deployment Server.
Which statement is now true?
A. moving this computer to a different Deployment System requires the AClient agent be reconfigured
B. images can be sent using unicast packets or multicast packets
C. this setting configures images to be sent to the computer using multicasting technology
D. the Deployment Server must be configured to obtain its IP address from a DHCP server
Answer: B

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시험 번호/코드: 050-V70-CSEDLPS02
시험 이름: RSA (RSA Data Loss Prevention Certified System Engineer 7.x Exam)
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NO.1 Which of the following endpoint actions can be detected, audited or blocked by the
DLP Endpoint Enforcement Agent? (Choose two)
A. Screen capture
B. Printing to a file
C. Bluetooth File transfer
D. Copying to a floppy disk or hard drive
E. Copying a file from one network share to another network share
Answer: B, D

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NO.2 Which of the following requirements must be met to successfully run the DLP 7.0
Enterprise Manager installation program?
A. Minimum 2 gigabytes of available ram
B. Minimum 10 gigabytes of available space
C. Minimum Processor Speed of 1.950 GHZ
D. All of the above
Answer: D

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NO.3 What is the maximum number of DLP Network Sensors, Interceptors, and ICAP
Servers that can be managed by one DLP Network Controller?
A. 25
B. 50
C. 100
D. It depends on the license that has been purchased.
Answer: A

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NO.4 Which of the following statements are true about DLP policies? (Choose two)
A. Existing policies may be reordered.
B. Existing policies cannot be changed. They must be deleted and new policies
created to replace them.
C. The DLP administrator cannot create new policies; new polices must be
purchased from RSA .
D. Datacenter policies can be changed without ever losing the incremental scan
results and requiring a full scan.
E. Network, Datacenter, or Endpoint sections of a policy can be individually
disabled or enabled without affecting the other sections.
Answer: A, E

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NO.5 Automatic remediation actions can be configured in policy DLP Datacenter
policies in DLP release 7.0 and later releases.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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RSA 050-CSEDLPS 시험문제

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시험 번호/코드: 050-CSEDLPS
시험 이름: RSA (CSE RSA Data Loss Prevention 6.0)
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NO.1 Which of the following is NOT available as an option in Incident handling rules for DLP Network or
Datacenter?
A. Quarantine end user action
B. Assign Incident to User or Group
C. Set incident severity to a different setting
D. Automatically close an incident if severity level is low
Answer: A

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NO.2 RSA DLP Endpoint Enforce uses the same infrastructure as RSA DLP Endpoint Discovery.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.3 The RBC Company is performing datacenter scans on file shares within the corporate network. The
scans are permanent scans. Which of the following would require clearing the results of the previous scan
and performing a new complete scan?
A. New Grid Workers
B. New Grid Scan Group
C. New content blade in policy
D. Change of Operating System
Answer: C

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NO.4 Which of the following components is required to monitor/block HTTPS traffic in DLP Network?
A. Span Port
B. Bluecoat Proxy
C. Network Sensor
D. Network Controller
Answer: B

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NO.5 Which appliance can be set in scan and tag mode
A. Network Sensor
B. Network Controller
C. Network Interceptor
D. Network ICAPserver
Answer: C

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NO.6 Any ICAP client Proxy server can communicate with the ICAPserver by default. Which configuration file
is used to limit which Client proxy can connect to the ICAPserver appliance?
A. ICAP.cnf
B. ICAP.conf
C. proxy.conf
D. c-ICAP.conf
Answer: D

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NO.7 DLP network can decompress files that are compressed and analyze the contents of compressed files.
What is the maximum number of times, a file can be compressed before the e system cannot handle the
decompression/analysis of an attachment or transmission.
A. 20 levels of compression
B. 50 levels of compression
C. 75 levels of compression
D. 100 level of compression
Answer: A

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NO.8 Which of the following is NOT a component of the RSA DLP Suite?
A. Network
B. Endpoint
C. Filesystem
D. Datacenter
Answer: C

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NO.9 Incidents that are created as the result of RSA DLP agent scan on an end user's computer will be
categorized as Datacenter Incidents.
A. True
B. False
Answer: A

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NO.10 A Linux based version of the DLP Enterprise Coordinator is installed on the RSA DLP Network
controller.
A. True
B. False
Answer: B

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NO.1 Which of the following network configuration options contains a direct link between any two host
machines?
A. Bus
B. Ring
C. Star
D. Completely connected (mesh)
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A completely connected mesh configuration creates a direct link between any two host machines.
Incorrect answers:
A. A bus configuration links all stations along one transmission line.
B. A ring configuration forms a circle, and all stations are attached to a point on the transmission circle.
D. In a star configuration each station is linked directly to a main hub.

NO.2 Which of the following would be the BEST method for ensuring that critical fields in a master record
have been updated properly?
A. Field checks
B. Control totals
C. Reasonableness checks
D. A before-and-after maintenance report
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A before-and-after maintenance report is the best answer because a visual review would provide the most
positive verification that updating was proper.

NO.3 Which of the following data validation edits is effective in detecting transposition and transcription
errors?
A. Range check
B. Check digit
C. Validity check
D. Duplicate check
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A check digit is a numeric value that is calculated mathematically and is appended to data to
ensure that the original data have not been altered or an incorrect, but valid, value substituted.
This control is effective in detecting transposition and transcription errors.
Incorrect answers:
A. A range check is checking data that matches a predetermined range of values.
C. A validity check is programmed checking of the data validity in accordance with predetermined criteria.
D. In a duplicate check, new or fresh transactions are matched to those previously entered to ensure that
they are not already in the system.

NO.4 Which of the following is a telecommunication device that translates data from digital form to analog
form and back to digital?
A. Multiplexer
B. Modem
C. Protocol converter
D. Concentrator
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A modem is a device that translates data from digital to analog and back to digital.

NO.5 Which of the following devices extends the network and has the capacity to store frames and act as a
storage and forward device?
A. Router
B. Bridge
C. Repeater
D. Gateway
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A bridge connects two separate networks to form a logical network (e.g., joining an ethernet and token
network) and has the storage capacity to store frames and act as a storage and forward device. Bridges
operate at the OSI data link layer by examining the media access control header of a data packet.
Incorrect answers:
A. Routers are switching devices that operate at the OSI network layer by examining network addresses
(i.e., routing information encoded in an IP packet). The router, by examining the IP address, can make
intelligent decisions in directing the packet to its destination.
C. Repeaters amplify transmission signals to reach remote devices by taking a signal from a LAN,
reconditioning and retiming it, and sending it to another. This functionality is hardware encoded and
occurs at the OSI physical layer.
D. Gateways provide access paths to foreign networks.

NO.6 Which of the following is MOST likely to result from a business process reengineering (BPR) project?
A. An increased number of people using technology
B. Significant cost savings, through a reduction in the complexity of information technology
C. A weaker organizational structures and less accountability
D. Increased information protection (IP) risk will increase
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A BPR project more often leads to an increased number of people using technology, and this would be a
cause for concern. Incorrect answers:
B. As BPR is often technology oriented, and this technology is usually more complex and volatile than in
the past, cost savings do not often materialize in this area.
D. There is no reason for IP to conflict with a BPR project, unless the project is not run properly.

NO.7 IS management has decided to rewrite a legacy customer relations system using fourth generation
languages (4GLs). Which of the following risks is MOST often associated with system development using
4GLs?
A. Inadequate screen/report design facilities
B. Complex programming language subsets
C. Lack of portability across operating systems
D. Inability to perform data intensive operations
Answer: D

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Explanation:
4.Ls are usually not suitable for data intensive operations. Instead, they are used mainly for graphic user
interface (GUI) design or as simple query/report generators.
Incorrect answers:
A, B. Screen/report design facilities are one of the main advantages of 4GLs, and 4GLs have simple
programming language subsets.
C. Portability is also one of the main advantages of 4GLs.

NO.8 Which of the following is a benefit of using callback devices?
A. Provide an audit trail
B. Can be used in a switchboard environment
C. Permit unlimited user mobility
D. Allow call forwarding
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A callback feature hooks into the access control software and logs all authorized and unauthorized access
attempts, permitting the follow-up and further review of potential breaches. Call forwarding (choice D) is a
means of potentially bypassing callback control. By dialing through an authorized phone number from an
unauthorized phone number, a perpetrator can gain computer access. This vulnerability can be controlled
through callback systems that are available.

NO.9 Which of the following translates e-mail formats from one network to another so that the message can
travel through all the networks?
A. Gateway
B. Protocol converter
C. Front-end communication processor
D. Concentrator/multiplexor
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A gateway performs the job of translating e-mail formats from one network to another so messages can
make their way through all the networks.
Incorrect answers:
B. A protocol converter is a hardware device that converts between two different types of transmissions,
such as asynchronous and synchronous transmissions.
C. A front-end communication processor connects all network communication lines to a central computer
to relieve the central computer from performing network control, format conversion and message handling
tasks.
D. A concentrator/multiplexor is a device used for combining several lower-speed channels into a
higher-speed channel.

NO.10 Which of the following hardware devices relieves the central computer from performing network
control, format conversion and message handling tasks?
A. Spool
B. Cluster controller
C. Protocol converter
D. Front end processor
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A front-end processor is a hardware device that connects all communication lines to a central computer to
relieve the central computer.

NO.11 An offsite information processing facility having electrical wiring, air conditioning and flooring, but no
computer or communications equipment is a:
A. cold site.
B. warm site.
C. dial-up site.
D. duplicate processing facility.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A cold site is ready to receive equipment but does not offer any components at the site in advance of the
need.
Incorrect answers:
B. A warm site is an offsite backup facility that is configured partially with network connections and
selected peripheral equipment, such as disk and tape units, controllers and CPUs, to operate an
information processing facility.
D. A duplicate information processing facility is a dedicated, self-developed recovery site that can back up
critical applications.

NO.12 A critical function of a firewall is to act as a:
A. special router that connects the Internet to a LAN.
B. device for preventing authorized users from accessing the LAN.
C. server used to connect authorized users to private trusted network resources.
D. proxy server to increase the speed of access to authorized users.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A firewall is a set of related programs, located at a network gateway server, that protects the resources of
a private network from users of other networks. An enterprise with an intranet that allows its workers
access to the wider Internet installs a firewall to prevent outsiders from accessing its own private data
resources and for controlling the outside resources to which its own users have access. Basically, a
firewall, working closely with a router program, filters all network packets to determine whether or not to
forward them toward their destination. A firewall includes or works with a proxy server that makes network
requests on behalf of workstation users. A firewall is often installed in a specially designated computer
separate from the rest of the network so no incoming request can get directed to private network
resources.

NO.13 A call-back system requires that a user with an id and password call a remote server through a dial-up
line, then the server disconnects and: A. dials back to the user machine based on the user id and
password using a telephone number from its database.
B. dials back to the user machine based on the user id and password using a telephone number provided
by the user during this connection.
C. waits for a redial back from the user machine for reconfirmation and then verifies the user id and
password using its database.
D. waits for a redial back from the user machine for reconfirmation and then verifies the user id and
password using the sender's database.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A call-back system in a net centric environment would mean that a user with an id and password calls a
remote server through a dial-up line first, and then the server disconnects and dials back to the user
machine based on the user id and password using a telephone number from its database. Although the
server can depend upon its own database, it cannot know the authenticity of the dialer when the user dials
again. The server cannot depend upon the sender's database to dial back as the same could be
manipulated.

NO.14 A LAN administrator normally would be restricted from:
A. having end-user responsibilities.
B. reporting to the end-user manager.
C. having programming responsibilities.
D. being responsible for LAN security administration.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A LAN administrator should not have programming responsibilities but may have end- user
responsibilities. The LAN administrator may report to the director of the IPF or, in a decentralized
operation, to the end-user manager. In small organizations, the LAN administrator also may be
responsible for security administration over the LAN.

NO.15 An IS auditor reviewing the key roles and responsibilities of the database administrator (DBA) is
LEAST likely to expect the job description of the DBA to include:
A. defining the conceptual schema.
B. defining security and integrity checks.
C. liaising with users in developing data model.
D. mapping data model with the internal schema.
Answer: D Explanation:
A DBA only in rare instances should be mapping data elements from the data model to the internal
schema (physical data storage definitions). To do so would eliminate data independence for application
systems. Mapping of the data model occurs with the conceptual schema since the conceptual schema
represents the enterprisewide view of data within an organization and is the basis for deriving an end-user
department data model.

NO.16 Which of the following is a dynamic analysis tool for the purpose of testing software modules?
A. Blackbox test
B. Desk checking
C. Structured walk-through
D. Design and code
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A blackbox test is a dynamic analysis tool for testing software modules. During the testing of software
modules a blackbox test works first in a cohesive manner as one single unit/entity, consisting of numerous
modules and second, with the user data that flows across software modules. In some cases, this even
drives the software behavior.
Incorrect answers:
In choices B, C and D, the software (design or code) remains static and somebody simply closely
examines it by applying his/her mind, without actually activating the software. Hence, these cannot be
referred to as dynamic analysis tools.

NO.17 Which of the following types of data validation editing checks is used to determine if a field contains
data, and not zeros or blanks?
A. Check digit
B. Existence check
C. Completeness check
D. Reasonableness check
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A completeness check is used to determine if a field contains data and not zeros or blanks. Incorrect
answers:
A. A check digit is a digit calculated mathematically to ensure original data was not altered.
B. An existence check also checks entered data for agreement to predetermined criteria.
D. A reasonableness check matches input to predetermined reasonable limits or occurrence rates.

NO.18 A data administrator is responsible for: A. maintaining database system software.
B. defining data elements, data names and their relationship.
C. developing physical database structures.
D. developing data dictionary system software.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A data administrator is responsible for defining data elements, data names and their relationship. Choices
A, C and D are functions of a database administrator (DBA)

NO.19 Which of the following systems-based approaches would a financial processing company employ to
monitor spending patterns to identify abnormal patterns and report them?
A. A neural network
B. Database management software
C. Management information systems
D. Computer assisted audit techniques
Answer: A Explanation:
A neural network will monitor and learn patterns, reporting exceptions for investigation. Incorrect answers:
B. Database management software is a method of storing and retrieving data.
C. Management information systems provide management statistics but do not normally have a
monitoring and detection function.
D. Computer-assisted audit techniques detect specific situations, but are not intended to learn patterns
and detect abnormalities.

NO.20 A hub is a device that connects:
A. two LANs using different protocols.
B. a LAN with a WAN.
C. a LAN with a metropolitan area network (MAN).
D. two segments of a single LAN.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
A hub is a device that connects two segments of a single LAN. A hub is a repeater. It provides transparent
connectivity to users on all segments of the same LAN. It is a level 1 device. Incorrect answers:
A. A bridge operates at level 2 of the OSI layer and is used to connect two LANs using different protocols
(e.g., joining an ethernet and token network) to form a logical network.
B. A gateway, which is a level 7 device, is used to connect a LAN to a WAN.
C. A LAN is connected with a MAN using a router, which operates in the network layer.

NO.21 To affix a digital signature to a message, the sender must first create a message digest by applying a
cryptographic hashing algorithm against:
A. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message digest using the sender's private key.
B. any arbitrary part of the message and thereafter enciphering the message digest using the sender's
private key.
C. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message using the sender's private key.
D. the entire message and thereafter enciphering the message along with the message digest using the
sender's private key.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A digital signature is a cryptographic method that ensures data integrity, authentication of the message,
and non-repudiation. To ensure these, the sender first creates a message digest by applying a
cryptographic hashing algorithm against the entire message and thereafter enciphers the message digest
using the sender's private key. A message digest is created by applying a cryptographic hashing algorithm
against the entire message not on any arbitrary part of the message. After creating the message digest,
only the message digest is enciphered using the sender's private key, not the message.

NO.22 A database administrator is responsible for:
A. defining data ownership.
B. establishing operational standards for the data dictionary.
C. creating the logical and physical database.
D. establishing ground rules for ensuring data integrity and security.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A database administrator is responsible for creating and controlling the logical and physical database.
Defining data ownership resides with the head of the user department or top management if the data is
common to the organization. IS management and the data administrator are responsible for establishing
operational standards for the data dictionary. Establishing ground rules for ensuring data integrity and
security in line with the corporate security policy is a function of the security administrator.

NO.23 Which of the following tests is an IS auditor performing when a sample of programs is selected to
determine if the source and object versions are the same?
A. A substantive test of program library controls
B. A compliance test of program library controls
C. A compliance test of the program compiler controls
D. A substantive test of the program compiler controls
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A compliance test determines if controls are operating as designed and are being applied in a manner that
complies with management policies and procedures. For example, if the IS auditor is concerned whether
program library controls are working properly, the IS auditor might select a sample of programs to
determine if the source and object versions are the same. In other words, the broad objective of any
compliance test is to provide auditors with reasonable assurance that a particular control on which the
auditor plans to rely is operating as the auditor perceived it in the preliminary evaluation.

NO.24 A sequence of bits appended to a digital document that is used to secure an e-mail sent through the
Internet is called a:
A. digest signature.
B. electronic signature.
C. digital signature.
D. hash signature.
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A digital signature through the private cryptographic key authenticates a transmission from a sender
through the private cryptographic key. It is a string of bits that uniquely represent another string of bits, a
digital document. An electronic signature refers to the string of bits that digitally represents a handwritten
signature captured by a computer system when a human applies it on an electronic pen pad, connected
to the system.

NO.25 Which of the following BEST describes the necessary documentation for an enterprise product
reengineering (EPR) software installation?
A. Specific developments only
B. Business requirements only
C. All phases of the installation must be documented
D. No need to develop a customer specific documentation
Answer: C

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Explanation:
A global enterprise product reengineering (EPR) software package can be applied to a business to
replace, simplify and improve the quality of IS processing. Documentation is intended to help understand
how, why and which solutions that have been selected and implemented, and therefore must be specific
to the project. Documentation is also intended to support quality assurance and must be comprehensive.

NO.26 A number of system failures are occurring when corrections to previously detected errors are
resubmitted for acceptance testing. This would indicate that the maintenance team is probably not
adequately performing which of the following types of testing?
A. Unit testing
B. Integration testing
C. Design walk-throughs
D. Configuration management
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A common system maintenance problem is that errors are often corrected quickly (especially when
deadlines are tight) , units are tested by the programmer, and then transferred to the acceptance test area.
This often results in system problems that should have been detected during integration or system testing.
Integration testing aims at ensuring that the major components of the system interface correctly.

NO.27 The use of a GANTT chart can:
A. aid in scheduling project tasks.
B. determine project checkpoints.
C. ensure documentation standards.
D. direct the post-implementation review.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A GANTT chart is used in project control. It may aid in the identification of needed checkpoints but its
primary use is in scheduling. It will not ensure the completion of documentation nor will it provide direction
for the post-implementation review.

NO.28 Structured programming is BEST described as a technique that:
A. provides knowledge of program functions to other programmers via peer reviews.
B. reduces the maintenance time of programs by the use of small-scale program modules.
C. makes the readable coding reflect as closely as possible the dynamic execution of the program.
D. controls the coding and testing of the high-level functions of the program in the development process.
Answer: B

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Explanation:
A characteristic of structured programming is smaller, workable units. Structured programming has
evolved because smaller, workable units are easier to maintain. Structured programming is a style of
programming which restricts the kinds of control structures. This limitation is not crippling. Any program
can be written with allowed control structures. Structured programming is sometimes referred to as
go-to-less programming, since a go-to statement is not allowed. This is perhaps the most well known
restriction of the style, since go-to statements were common at the time structured programming was
becoming more popular. Statement labels also become unnecessary, except in languages where
subroutines are identified by labels.

NO.29 The MOST significant level of effort for business continuity planning (BCP) generally is required during
the:
A. testing stage.
B. evaluation stage.
C. maintenance stage.
D. early stages of planning.
Answer: D

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Explanation:
Company.com in the early stages of a BCP will incur the most significant level of program development
effort, which will level out as the BCP moves into maintenance, testing and evaluation stages. It is during
the planning stage that an IS auditor will play an important role in obtaining senior management's
commitment to resources and assignment of BCP responsibilities.

NO.30 In an EDI process, the device which transmits and receives electronic documents is the:
A. communications handler.
B. EDI translator.
C. application interface.
D. EDI interface.
Answer: A

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Explanation:
A communications handler transmits and receives electronic documents between trading partners
and/or wide area networks (WANs).
Incorrect answers:
B. An EDI translator translates data between the standard format and a trading partner's proprietary
format.
C. An application interface moves electronic transactions to, or from, the application system and performs
data mapping.
D. An EDI interface manipulates and routes data between the application system and the communications
handler.

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TIA CCNT 시험문제

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시험 번호/코드: CCNT
시험 이름: TIA (Convergent Network Technologies)
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NO.1 An 8 by 4 key system would have:
A. Eight lines.
B. Eight trunks.
C. Eight stations.
D. Four stations.
Answer: C

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NO.2 If you want to track the cost of long distance calls, the feature you use is called:
A. SMDR
B. CAR
C. LLCR
D. LCR
Answer: A

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NO.3 The three parts of the PSTN are switching, access, and:
A. CPE.
B. PBX.
C. Trunking.
D. Transmission.
Answer: D

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NO.4 Tie trunks are not switched by:
A. The telco.
B. The PBX.
C. The premise switch.
D. Using LCR.
Answer: A

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NO.5 Commercial long distance telephony began in:
A. 1938.
B. 1811.
C. 1881.
D. 1876.
Answer: C

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NO.6 Which of the following technologies are changing our view of telecommunications?
A. Transistor, computers, and fiber optics
B. Satellite and submarine technology
C. Computers and communications
D. Cell and PCS phones, and the Web browser
Answer: D

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NO.7 In a key system, direct access means:
A. Callers can access an outside line.
B. Callers access an outside line using "dial 9."
C. Callers access an outside line without using an attendant.
D. Callers access an outside by pressing a button.
Answer: D

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NO.8 The CO switch provides power for:
A. Analog station sets.
B. Digital station sets.
C. Tie lines.
D. Key service units.
Answer: A

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NO.9 DC signaling is used by analog sets for:
A. In-band signaling.
B. Supervisory signaling.
C. Ringing.
D. Touchtone signaling
Answer: C

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NO.10 The public switched telephone network (PSTN) is defined by:
A. Direct trunk access to the called party.
B. Private leased lines.
C. Long-distance connection.
D. Dial-up access
Answer: D

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NO.11 The transistor, stored program control, and digital technologies enabled:
A. The Internet.
B. Universal service.
C. Deregulation of telecommunications.
D. International calling.
Answer: B

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NO.12 The LEC service that provides PBX like features from the LEC switch is:
A. Centrex.
B. SMDR.
C. Off-premise extensions.
D. Off-premise switching.
Answer: A

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NO.13 A PBX can select the most economical trunk group using:
A. Translations.
B. Least cost routing.
C. Automatic selection lists.
D. Account code routing.
Answer: B

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NO.14 A few lines serve multiple users using a:
A. PBX.
B. CO switch.
C. Multiplexer.
D. Key system.
Answer: D

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NO.15 A telephone is called a:
A. Station set.
B. Message oriented device.
C. Key device.
D. Simple port.
Answer: A

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NO.16 Telecommunications is:
A. The use of a telephone or similar equipment for voice communication.
B. The practice of transporting a signal, often through a switch, typically using voice
communications technology.
C. Communications at a distance.
D. The designing of a telephone network calling area.
Answer: C

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NO.17 A PBX can provide multiple:
A. Billing systems.
B. Entry points.
C. Trunk groups.
D. Power supplies
Answer: C

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NO.18 An OPX is:
A. An outside party line.
B. A station set on a different premise than the PBX.
C. An outside priority extension call.
D. Onside parameter exchange.
Answer: C

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NO.19 The device that controls the operation of the key telephone system is called:
A. Central control.
B. A call processor.
C. A key service unit.
D. The system controller.
Answer: C

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NO.20 CPE is:
A. Owned by the ILEC.
B. Owned by a CLEC.
C. Owned or leased by the end user.
D. Provided by the IXC.
Answer: C

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NO.21 A PBX is:
A. A switch.
B. A simplified line sharing device.
C. An analog multiplexer.
D. Owned by the telco.
Answer: A

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NO.22 The point of demarcation divides:
A. The central office from the network.
B. Network responsibility and subscriber responsibility.
C. Local networks and long-distance networks.
D. IXC POP switch and CO switch.
Answer: B

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NO.23 Universal service and interconnection are goals of:
A. IXCs.
B. Public policy in the United States.
C. The FCC.
D. Congress.
Answer: B

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NO.24 Direct Inward Dialing uses:
A. Key system lines.
B. Loop start functionality.
C. Digital key systems.
D. Trunks.
Answer: D

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NO.25 The MFJ:
A. Deregulated PBXs.
B. Deregulated premise wiring.
C. Created the RBOCs.
D. Created the Bell System.
Answer: C

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NO.26 Cellular subscribers represent:
A. Only 5 percent of the total voice users.
B. The largest growth in absolute numbers over the last decade.
C. A declining segment of the telecommunications market.
D. The most exciting area of Internet access innovation.
Answer: B

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NO.27 Call appearance buttons allow the management of multiple:
A. Calls.
B. Station sets.
C. Display colors.
D. Analog modems
Answer: B

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NO.28 An in-band signal used by station sets is:
A. Loop start.
B. TT, or DTMF.
C. Rotary dial.
D. E&M.
Answer: B

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NO.29 A trunk is:
A. A T1.
B. A connection between a key system and a switch.
C. A connection between two switches.
D. A connection between a switch and a STP.
Answer: C

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NO.30 A connection between a phone and a switch is called a:
A. T1.
B. Trunk.
C. Line.
D. Wire.
Answer: C

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